Recruitment KVS NVS 2026 Tier 1 TGT Examination Question Paper Shift 2 for Librarian, Administrative Officer, Assistant Section Officer (Unstoppable Success)



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part – i: general reasoning

  1. Giri and Vani play badminton while Jeeva and Shalu do not play badminton. Shalu and Tani are among swimmers. Jeeva, Vani, Shalu, and Tani play volleyball, and two of them also play badminton. Identify which of them play both sports?

(1) Jeeva
(2) Giri
(3) Tani
(4) Vani


  1. Five friends A, B, C, D and E are standing together one behind the other in a row of 40 students. A is positioned between C and B, with C in front and B behind. D is positioned ahead of E, while C is positioned behind E. If C is 15th from the last, determine A’s position from the front?

(1) 26th
(2) 14th
(3) 27th
(4) 15th


  1. If

(a) In the given code, ‘M%N’ translates to “N is M’s father.”
(b) In the given code, ‘M-N’ translates to “N is M’s Mother.”
(c) In the given code, ‘M×N’ translates to “N is M’s brother.”
(d) In the given code, ‘M+N’ translates to “N is M’s sister.”
(e) In the given code, ‘M*N’ translates to “N is M’s son.”
(f) In the given code, ‘M#N’ translates to “N is M’s daughter.”
In the coded expression U # T × S + R × Q % P, find the relationship of U to P.

(1) Mother-in-law
(2) Husband
(3) Wife
(4) Sister


  1. In the following questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statement followed by three conclusions numbered (I), (II) and (III). Assuming statement to be true, decide which of the conclusions is/are definitely true.

Statement: P≥Q, p<R, Q>S
Conclusion: (I) S<R (II) R>Q (III) S<P

(1) All conclusions (I), (II) and (III) are true
(2) Only conclusions (I) and (II) are valid.
(3) Only conclusions (II) is true
(4) Only conclusion (II) and (III)


  1. The Venn diagram best represents the relationship among which of the classes given in the options?

(1) Men, Doctors, Fathers
(2) Flowers, Clothes, White
(3) Birds, Parrot, Bats
(4) Brass, Boat, Ship


  1. The series below has missing letters, provided in the correct order as one of the options. Choose the correct option.

dc_ab_dcdc_abad_dc_a

(1) bbdcb
(2) bdacb
(3) bcbab
(4) babcb


  1. Five orders—V, W, X, Y, and Z—were served consecutively. Neither Y nor Z was the first or last to be served. X followed Z immediately. W followed Y immediately. Exactly one order was placed between V and W. How many orders were served between Y and Z?

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3


  1. Determine the number that replaces the question mark (?) in this series.

8, 4, 4, 6, 12, 30, ?

(1) 90
(2) 60
(3) 70
(4) 80


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  1. A family of seven—W, X, U, Z, T, Y, and V—has four male members. Each person has a unique holiday destination: France, England, Canada, Japan, Singapore, Australia, or Germany. Female members did not choose Germany or England. The oldest chose England. W chose Canada and is younger than Y, who chose Japan. V, who chose Singapore, is older than T but younger than W. Z’s wife is the youngest. X is younger than T and only older than U; she is unmarried and chose France. The person choosing Germany is not the youngest. Determine T’s choice.

(1) Japan
(2) Australia
(3) England
(4) Germany


  1. Examine the diagram provided, where each section’s number represents a count of persons, and answer the question.

How many uneducated salaried males are entrepreneurs?

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 2


  1. In the following question a statement is followed by two conclusions numbered (I) and (II). Treat the statement as fact and evaluate the two conclusions jointly. Decide which of the conclusions logically follow / follows,

Statement: A company has launched a new product; consider buying it if its price and quality meet your requirements.
Conclusions:      (I) The product must be of good quality.
                       (II) The product’s price should be reasonable.

(1) Neither conclusion (I) nor Conclusion (II) follows.
(2) Only conclusion (I) follows.
(3) Only conclusion (II) follows.
(4) Both Conclusions (I) and (II) follow.


  1. Four statements are given followed by three conclusions (I), (II) and (III). Accept the statements as true, regardless of their contradiction to common knowledge. Decide which conclusions are logically valid.

Statements: All fuses are pipes. No pipe is jack. Some jacks are pumps. All pumps are violins.
Conclusions:
Some Violins are pipes.
Some Jacks are violins
No Fuse is jack.

(1) All conclusions (I), (II) and (III) follow.
(2) Only conclusions (I) and (II) follows.
(3) Only conclusion (II) and (III) follows.
(4) Only Conclusions (I) and (III) follow.


  1. B is married to P. Q is the grandson of E, who is D’s wife and P’s mother-in-law. Q states: “X is married to E’s granddaughter.” How is P related to X?

(1) Brother-in-law
(2) Mother-in-law
(3) Sister-in-law
(4) Father-in-law


  1. Find the letter-number cluster that logically continues the series and replaces the question mark (?).

B1V, D8T, H27P, N64J, _? _.

(1) V128Y
(2) R125Y
(3) V125B
(4) R128B


  1. Eight individuals—E, F, G, H, I, J, K, and L—are seated around a square table with two on each side. There are three female members, and none are seated adjacently. J sits between L and F. G sits between I and F. H, a female, is second to J’s left. F, a male, sits directly opposite E, a female. A female sits between F and I. Identify the three female members.

(1) G, K and L
(2) G, H and J
(3) E, G and J
(4) E, H and G


  1. In a game, while Rohit was facing East rotated by 180° anticlock-wise and then rotated by 225° clockwise. Then he ran 60 m straight and turning to his right he ran for 400 m. After walking 30 meters to his left, he stops. Relative to his starting point, in which direction is Rohit now, and what is the shortest distance to his final position?

(1) North-West, 490 m
(2) South-East, 410 m
(3) North-East, 490 m
(4) South-West, 410 m


  1. Identify the number that completes the series in place of the question mark (?).

7864, 7839, 7812,?, 7767, 7740

(1) 7792
(2) 7795
(3) 7794
(4) 7793


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  1. Study the following letter sequence and answer the question:

(Left) M G Q X V W K H R C Y U J D L S Z F B O T E A P I N (Right)

If the order of last eleven letters in the given sequence are reversed, which of the following will be the fifth letter to the left of twelfth letter from the left end?

(1) U
(2) K
(3) Z
(4) O


  1. In the evening, Akash began jogging from home in the direction of his shadow for 60 m. He then turned left and walked 50 m, followed by another left turn to cycle 60 m. His wife called to say she is at a milk booth 120 m east of their house. Determine Akash’s direction relative to his wife and the shortest distance between them.

(1) South-East, 110 m
(2) North-West, 130 m
(3) South-East, 130 m
(4) North-West, 110 m


  1. Two statements are given, marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): All maps are exact representations of Earth.
Reason (R): The Earth is spherical, while maps are two-dimensional representations.
Select the correct answer from the following options:

(1) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(2) The assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true, and (R) is the accurate explanation for (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, yet (R) does not correctly explain (A).
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.


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part – iI: Numerical Ability

  1. LCM and HCF of two numbers are 7056 and 28 respectively. Dividing the first number by 3 yields a quotient of 84 and a remainder of 0. Then, the second number is:

(1) 524
(2) 784
(3) 768
(4) 676


  1. What is the smallest number that must be subtracted from 696 to result in a perfect square?

(1) 4
(2) 20
(3) 15
(4) 10


  1. An examination consists of two papers of 140 marks and 150 marks. A candidate earned 35% in the first paper, which was worth 140 marks. What percent marks should be obtained by him in the second paper so as to score 50% marks in the two papers together?

(1) 96%
(2) 49%
(3) 64%
(4) 75%


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  1. The average monthly salary of 15 workers of factory A is ₹16,000 and that of 12 workers of factory B is ₹18,000. Therefore, the combined average monthly salary for all 27 workers across the two factories is (in ₹):

(1) \frac{1,54,000}{9}

(2) \frac{1,45,000}{9}   
(3) \frac{1,48,000}{9}  
(4) \frac{1,52,000}{9}


  1. The ratio of two numbers is 3:5 and their product is 2160. Then, the sum of the two numbers is:

(1) 120
(2) 84
(3) 96
(4) 112


  1. If length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and its breadth is decreased by 10%, then what is the percent change in its area?

(1) 8% decrease
(2) 10% increase
(3) 10% decrease
(4) 8% increase


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  1. The value of the expression 15.76 × 15.76 – 15.76 × (0.52) + 0.26 × 0.26 is:

(1) 235.45
(2) 245.25
(3) 240.25
(4) 239.45


  1. A person invests two equal amounts at the rate of 15% and 18% simple interest per annum. If the total interest earned on these amounts in 2 years is ₹6,600, then the sum invested in each case is:

(1) ₹5,000
(2) ₹12,000
(3) ₹10,000
(4) ₹6,000


  1. A bus completes a 420 km journey in 6 hours and 30 minutes. The first 75% of the distance was covered at a speed of 63 km/h. What was the speed of the bus for rest of the journey?

(1) 75 km/h
(2) 60 km/h
(3) 65 km/h
(4) 70 km/h


  1. Reciprocal of the sum of the reciprocals of fractions \frac{2}{5} and \frac{7}{8}is:

(1) \frac{14}{51}
(2) \frac{2}{5}

(3) \frac{51}{14}
(4) \frac{40}{51}


  1. A and B can complete a work in 8 days; B and C can complete the same work in 12 days, while A, B and C can complete the same work in 6 days. In how many days can A and C complete this work?

(1) 6 days
(2) 10 days
(3) 8 days
(4) 7 days


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  1. The number of watches sold by a shopkeeper in the last six months of a year are given in the following table:
MonthNumber of Watches
July1500
August1000
September1500
October2500
November2000
December1500

Total number of watches sold in the months of August and November (together) is what percent of the total watches sold in these six months?
(1) 40%
(2) 25%
(3) 30%
(4) 35%


  1. A shopkeeper bought a machine for ₹7,50,000 and sold it at a discount of 10% on the marked price. If he suffers a loss of ₹30,000, then what was the marked price of the machine?

(1) ₹7,20,000
(2) ₹8,40,000
(3) ₹8,00,000
(4) ₹7,60,000


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  1. A number yields a remainder of 57 when divided by 72. Find the remainder when that same number is divided by 18.

(1) 3
(2) 17
(3) 11
(4) 9


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  1. The value of   is:

(1) -1
(2) 5
(3) 1
(4) -5


  1. What are the next two terms of the series 4, 8, 24, 96, …?

(1) 2880, 3600
(2) 384, 480
(3) 480, 560
(4) 480, 2880


  1. If on selling 50 articles, a shopkeeper earns a profit equal to selling price of 10 articles, then gain percent of the shopkeeper is:

(1) 10%
(2) 25%
(3) 20%
(4) 12.5%


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  1. If an operation  is such that  , then the value of 7 1 is:

(1) 1
(2) -7
(3) -6
(4) -1


  1. An 8-digit number   is divisible by 44. Then, the maximum value of   is:

(1) 11
(2) 13
(3) 7
(4) 8


  1. For a certain principal at 5% per annum, the difference between simple interest and compound interest (compounded annually) over 2 years is ₹42. Find the principal amount.

(1) ₹16,800
(2) ₹8,400
(3) ₹9,600
(4) ₹16,000


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part – iII: basic computer literacy

  1. Which of the following is not a cloud-based video conferencing and communication platform allows users to conduct online meetings, webinars and virtual collaborations?

(1) Zoom
(2) Microsoft Access
(3) Google Meet
(4) Microsoft Teams


  1. Which of the following applications is most commonly set as the default to open a file named myfile.txt in MS Windows when double-clicked?

(1) Google Chrome
(2) Notepad
(3) WordPad
(4) Microsoft Word


  1. Which organization developed ChatGPT?

(1) Apple

(2) Google

(3) Microsoft

(4) OpenAI


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  1. Which type of network is typically created when you connect your mobile phone to another mobile phone using Bluetooth technology to transfer photos?

(1) WAN

(2) PAN

(3) LAN

(4) MAN


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  1. Which software is most suitable for creating, editing, and presenting a multimedia presentation on cyber fraud, its prevention, and related laws?

(1) MS Access

(2) MS PowerPoint

(3) MS Edge

(4) MS Teams


  1. Which web browser was created by Google?

(1) Google Assistant

(2) Google Meet

(3) Google Drive

(4) Google Chrome


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  1. Which of the following is not an example of open-source operating system?

(1) Android

(2) iOS

(3) Linux

(4) Ubuntu

  1. What is the keyboard shortcut to close the active document in Microsoft Word?

(1) Ctrl + N

(2) Ctrl + W

(3) Ctrl + Q

(4) Ctrl + S


  1. Which of the following keyboard shortcut combinations is commonly used to perform the “Paste” operation in Microsoft Windows?

(1) Ctrl + X

(2) Ctrl + C

(3) Ctrl + V

(4) Ctrl + P


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  1. Which of the following is an example of volatile memory in a computer system?

(1) Cloud Storage

(2) ROM

(3) RAM

(4) Hard Disk


  1. Which of the following groups consists of only input devices in a computer system?

(1) Speaker, Keyboard, Microphone

(2) Scanner, Keyboard, Printer

(3) Scanner, Plotter, Microphone

(4) Scanner, Keyboard, Microphone


  1. Which tool is used to write a logical computer program that instructs a computer to perform a task?

(1) Audacity

(2) Edge

(3) Python

(4) Premier


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  1. Which protocol is used to create a secure connection between a web browser and a website so that all data is encrypted?

(1) www

(2) ftp

(3) http

(4) https


  1. In the full form of URL what does the letter ‘U’ represent?

(1) Uniform

(2) User

(3) Unix

(4) Universal


  1. Which practice should you avoid when creating a secure password for online accounts?

(1) To make it easy to remember, create a short and simple password using familiar names, numbers, or phrases

(2) Use combinations of valid characters (letters, numbers, symbols)

(3) Enable two-factor authentication (2FA)

(4) Use unique passwords for each account


  1. Which file extension is standard for audio files?

(1) .png

(2) .pdf

(3) .jpg

(4) .wav


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  1. Which of the following is a primary function of an operating system in a computer?

(1) Designing graphics and presentations

(2) Managing hardware and software resources

(3) Browsing the internet and emails

(4) Editing documents and spreadsheets


  1. Arrange the following standard memory units in order from smallest to largest capacity.

(1) MB<KB<GB<TB

(2) TB<GB<MB<KB

(3) KB<MB<TB<GB

(4) KB<MB<GB<TB


  1. Which of the following is the most common and primary use of ‘Dropbox’ in a computer system?

(1) Operating System

(2) Web Browser

(3) Anti-virus Software

(4) Cloud Storage


  1. In a LAN, a 160-meter Cat 6 cable is causing signal loss. Which device should be used to boost and retransmit the signal between the server and the device?

(1) Repeater

(2) Plotter

(3) Modem

(4) Firewall


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part – iV: general knowledge

  1. Which of the following pairs of Bilateral Naval Exercise and the countries is not matched correctly?

(1) JIMEX – India and Japan

(2) SLINEX – India and Sri Lanka

(3) SIMBEX – India and Singapore

(4) VARUNA – India and Vietnam


  1. Which of the following pairs was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar, 2025 in Tamil language?

             (Author)             (Book)

(1) Latshmihar – ‘Kuttonru Kutirru’

(2) A Prakash – ‘Kinathu Mettu Panamaram’

(3) Muthurasa Kumar – ‘Kangu’

(4) Vairavan L R – ‘Pattar-Pi’


  1. Which of the following is a Private National School Education Board?

(1) National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)

(2) Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)

(3) Council for the Indian School Certificate Examination (CISCE)

(4) Maharshi Sandipani Rashtriya Veda Sanskrit Shiksha Board, Ujjain


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  1. Metals possess:

(1) Low conductivity

(2) Very low resistivity

(3) Moderate resistivity

(4) High resistivity


  1. What is the Repo Rate in India?

(1) The interest rate charged by banks for interbank transactions.

(2) The rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks.

(3) The maximum limit fixed by RBI on the rate of interest that commercial banks can charge on personal loans.

(4) The minimum percentage of deposits that commercial banks must keep with the RBI.


  1. Who was the Chairperson of the States Reorganisation Commission of India, set up in 1953?

(1) B.R. Ambedkar

(2) K.M. Munshi

(3) C. Kania

(4) Fazl Ali


  1. Consider the following statements regarding the Godel Prize and identify the incorrect statement:

(1) Godel Prize 2025 also includes an award of five thousand US dollars.

(2) The Royal Mathematical Society, Norway, awards the Annual Godel Prize in the field of Theoretical Computer Science.

(3) Godel Prize is named in the honor of theorist Kurt Godel.

(4) The 2025 Gödel Prize has been awarded jointly to Eshan Chattopadhyay and David Zuckerman.


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  1. Which two new indicators have been added to India’s National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) apart from the 10 indicators adopted from the Global MPI?

(1) Labour Force participation rate and Unemployment rate

(2) Gender social norms and Adult Literacy

(3) Maternal Health and Bank Account

(4) Access to Electricity and Internet services


  1. Among the following, which is an s-block element?

(1) Argon (Ar)

(2) Lithium (Li)

(3) Helium (He)

(4) Neon (Ne)


  1. The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, passed in 2016 is related to which of the following?

(1) Introduction of Goods and Services Tax

(2) Abolition of Planning Commission and creation of NITI Aayog

(3) Special constitutional status to Delhi (NCT) with legislative assembly

(4) Introduction of 10% EWS reservation

  1. When an air mass is fully lifted above the land surface, it is called:

(1) Stationary front

(2) Cold front

(3) Warm front

(4) Occluded front


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  1. Which type of Innate Immunity barriers are Acid in the stomach and ‘saliva in the mouth’?

(1) Physiological

(2) Cellular

(3) Cytokine

(4) Physical


  1. Consider the following statements about the United Nations ‘World Summit for Social Development’:

(A) The inaugural World Summit took place in Kyoto in 1997.

(B) The second World Summit will be held in Doha in November 2025.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Neither (A) nor (B) is correct

(2) Only (A) is correct

(3) Only (B) is correct

(4) Both (A) and (B) are correct


  1. Which of the following pairs of Arjuna Awardees for the year 2024 and their discipline, is incorrectly matched?

           (Sports Person) (Discipline)

(1) Ms Jyothi Yarraji – Athletics

(2) Ms Annu Rani – Athletics

(3) Ms Saweety – Boxing

(4) Ms Nitu – Para Athletics


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  1. Nearly all Ice Shelves are in:

(1) Scandinavia

(2) Greenland

(3) Antarctica

(4) Arctic


  1. Between 1819 and 1926, the princely state of Bhopal was ruled by four women rulers. Who among the following was one of the four rulers?

(1) Bilqis Begum

(2) Sikander Begum

(3) Mubarak Begum

(4) Razia Begum


  1. Which of the following countries are part of G20?

(a) Saudi Arabia (b) Indonesia (c) Thailand (d) Singapore

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Only (c) and (d)

(2) Only (a) and (d)

(3) Only (b) and (c)

(4) Only (a) and (b)


  1. The implementation duration for the ULLAS Scheme, also known as New India Literacy Programme (NILP) is:

(1) FYs 2024-2029

(2) FYs 2021-2026

(3) FYs 2022-2027

(4) FYs 2023-2028


  1. Which writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court to quash the decision made by a lower court?

(1) Prohibition

(2) Habeas Corpus

(3) Mandamus

(4) Certiorari


  1. Who is the first Indian translator to win the International Booker Prize?

(1) Arundhati Roy

(2) Deepa Bhasthi

(3) Geetanjali Shree

(4) Jhumpa Lahiri


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part – v: language competency test – English

  1. One of the parts of the following sentence may or may not have an error. Identify the one with the error.

‘Daffodils’ is a well-known poem,                            written by William Wordsworth,

                 (A)                                                                     (b)

which has got all the essential elements                in good poetry

(c)                                                                    (d)

(1) (d)

(2) (a)

(3) (b)

(4) (c)


  1. Identify the Clause of the underlined part of the given sentence.

This is the building which was constructed in the year 1942.

(1) Adverb Clause

(2) Principal Clause

(3) Noun Clause

(4) Adjective Clause


  1. Identify the part of speech of the underlined word in the following sentence.

She pronounced the word quite correctly.

(1) Adjective

(2) Preposition

(3) Conjunction

(4) Adverb


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  1. Choose the option nearest in meaning to the word given below.

OBLIVION

(1) Lifelessness

(2) Haziness

(3) Unconsciousness

(4) Forgetfulness


  1. Choose the option in which the following jumbled groups of words can be correctly rearranged to form a meaningful sentence:

(a) and market value of the product

(b) as an entrepreneur,

(c) if you want to establish yourself

(d) Stay informed about current business strategies

(1) (b), (d), (a), (c)

(2) (d), (a), (b), (c)

(3) (c), (b), (d), (a)

(4) (a), (b), (d), (c)


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  1. Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom used in the given sentence.

The present disturbances will soon blow over.

(1) Pass into

(2) Pass off

(3) Pass out

(4) Pass by


  1. Choose the option to fill in the blank with a suitable article (if required) in the given sentence.

Her medical training was received from_ _ _ _ _ _elderly Jewish woman.

(1) no article

(2) the

(3) an

(4) a


  1. Choose the option opposite in meaning to the word given below.

EXPAND

(1) Maximize

(2) Contract

(3) Minimise

(4) Magnify


  1. Choose the option in which the voice in the given sentence has been correctly changed.

One may accomplish many things by a little effort.

(1) Many things can be accomplished by a little effort by one.

(2) Even a modest effort can achieve significant results.

(3) Many things may be accomplished by a little effort.

(4) By a little effort, one may accomplish many things.


  1. Choose the option which correctly fills in the blank:

Don’t loiter _____ the street.

(1) into

(2) on

(3) in

(4) about


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part – vI: language competency test – hindi

  1. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा वाक्य व्याकरणिक दृष्टि से सही है?

(1) पेड़ों पर मुस्कराते फूल देखकर हम कितनी खुशी होती है!

(2) पेड़ों पर खिले हँसते फूल देखकर हमें अत्यधिक आनंद होता है!

(3) पेड़ों पर मुस्कराते फूल देखकर हमें कितनी खुशी होती है!

(4) पेड़ों पर फूलों की मुस्कान देखकर हमारा हृदय प्रसन्न हो जाता है!


  1. ‘प्रस्तुत निबंध में लेखक ने बहुत ही सटीक और ______ शैली में वर्णन किया है।’

उपर्युक्त वाक्य में रिक्त-स्थान की पूर्ति सही वर्तनी चालू शब्द से करें।

(1) व्यंग्यात्मक

(2) व्यंग्यात्मक

(3) व्यंग्यात्मक

(4) व्यंग्यात्मक


  1. ‘कैंची’ विशेषण के लिए सही भाव व्यक्त करने वाले उपयुक्त विशेष्य का चयन करें:

(1) अनुभव

(2) समुद्र

(3) व्यक्ति

(4) मीनार


Recruitment KVS NVS 2026 Tier 1 TGT

  1. “पत्र में वर्णन और अनुभव बाँटने का गुण रहता है”

उपरोक्त वाक्य के लिए उचित विराम चिह्न चुनें।

(1) ;

(2) ।  

(3) ?

(4) !


  1. “गाछ अपने फूलों में शहद का संचय करके रखते हैं।”

उपर्युक्त वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द का अर्थ है:

(1) दूब, घास

(2) जड़ें, पतित्याँ

(3) तना, टहनियाँ

(4) वृक्ष, पौधे


  1. ‘जिसका अंत न हो’ के लिए एक शब्द है:

(1) अनुपम

(2) अनंत

(3) उपयुक्त

(4) आदि


  1. निम्नलिखित में विलोगमार्थी शब्द-युग्म की पहचान करें –

(1) जय – विजय

(2) हर्ष – उल्लास

(3) सुख – शान्ति

(4) सरल – जटिल


Recruitment KVS NVS 2026 Tier 1 TGT

  1. ‘हिमांशु का परिवार अतिथियों का स्वागत करने के लिए ______।’

उपर्युक्त वाक्य में रिक्त-स्थान के लिए सही मुहावरे किया चयन करें:

(1) कान लगाकर सुन रहा है।

(2) आग में भी डाल रहा है।

(3) आँखें बिछाए बैठा है।

(4) खरी-खोटी सुना रहा है।


  1. ‘घुड़सवार’ शब्द में तत्पुरुष समास के नियम की दृष्टि से किस विभक्ति (परसर्ग) का लोप है?

(1) के

(2) में

(3) पर

(4) की


  1. ‘भावार्थ’ का संधि-विच्छेद है:

(1) भा + अर्थ

(2) भा + वार्थ

(3) भाव + वार्थ

(4) भाव + अर्थ


Recruitment KVS NVS 2026 Tier 1 TGT

Answer Key

Part I – General ReasoningPart III – Basic Computer Literacy
Q.No.AnswerQ.No.AnswerQ.No.AnswerQ.No.Answer
14111412514
22123422523
33132434534
42143442541
51154452551
62164464564
72173472572
81182482584
92192493594
104201503601
Part II – Numerical AbilityPart IV – General Knowledge
Q.No.AnswerQ.No.AnswerQ.No.AnswerQ.No.Answer
212313614714
222323621721
233333633733
244341642744
253351652753
264364664762
273372672774
283383683783
294392692794
301401701802
Part V – Language Competency Test – EnglishPart VI – Language Competency Test – Hindi
Q.No.AnswerQ.No.AnswerQ.No.AnswerQ.No.Answer
814862914962
824873921974
834882933983
844893942993
8539049541004

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