Recruitment KVS NVS 2026 Tier 1 PGT Examination Question Paper Shift 1 for Assistant Commissioner, Principal, Vice Principal (Promising Breakthrough)



part-i: General Reasoning

  1. A question is provided below, followed by two statements labelled (I) and (II). Determine which statement or combination of statements provides sufficient information to answer the question.

In a certain code language, ‘zu be da’ means ‘you are beautiful’. Which code word means ‘beautiful’ in that language?

Statements:

  1. The code ‘du ga be da’ translates to ‘colourful flowers are beautiful’.
  2. ‘ne zu pi’ means ‘you is me’.
  1. Both statements (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question.
  2. Both statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question.
  3. Only statement (I) provides enough information to answer the question; statement (II) does not.
  4. Only statement (II) is sufficient; statement (I) is not.

  1. Neetu, Gaurav’s daughter, tells Sameeksha: “Sunita, your mother, is my father’s youngest sister. My father is Shubham’s third child.” How is Shubham related to Sameeksha?
    (1) Father-in-law
    (2) Grandfather
    (3) Father
    (4) Maternal Uncle

  1. A statement illustrating a relationship between elements is given, followed by three numbered conclusions (I, II, and III). Given the statement is true, determine which of the conclusions are logically valid.

Statement: W ≤ X, X ≥ Y, Y < Z
Conclusions:

(I) Z > X
(II) W > Y

(1) Only conclusions (II) and (III) are true.
(2) None of the conclusions (I), (II) and (III) are true.
(3) Only conclusions (I) and (III) are true.
(4) Only conclusion (II) is true.


  1. Accept all statements as true, even if they contradict general knowledge. Decide which of the provided conclusions are logically supported by the statements.

Statements: All gems are rocks. Some rocks are minerals. All minerals are salts.
Conclusions:

(I) Some salts are gems.

(II) Some minerals are gems.

(III) Some rocks are gems.

(IV) No salt is gem.

(1) Either conclusion (I) or (IV) and conclusion (III) follow.
(2) Either conclusion (I) or conclusion (IV) follows.
(3) Only conclusion (III) follows.
(4) Only conclusion (IV) follows.


  1. Five senior citizens are sitting on the bench. Q is not adjacent to R. T and P are adjacent to S, who is in middle of the row. T is not adjacent to R. If P and T swap places, how many persons now stand between T and Q?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 0
(4) 1


  1. Which letter-number cluster should replace the question mark (?) to continue the series?

D3E, H6J, M9P, S12W, ___?

(1) E15J
(2) P14N
(3) Z15E
(4) X14T


  1. Aman is standing at the gate of his home, facing South. She rotates by 90° anti-clockwise and then rotates by 135° clockwise. Then she runs 6 km straight and turning to her left she runs for 40 km. Finally, after walking 3 km towards her right to reach a park. What is the minimum distance from his home to the park?

(1) 41 km
(2) 43 km
(3) 45 km
(4) 49 km


  1. Study the given diagram carefully and answer the question. The numbers in different sections indicate the number of persons. In this, the triangle represents Doctors, the square represents Males, the circle represents Fathers and the triangle represents Unemployed.
Recruitment KVS NVS 2026 Tier 1 PGT

How many Female doctors are employed?

(1) 12
(2) 13
(3) 11
(4) 11


  1. Five houses are labelled as A, B, C, D and E. D is 80 m to the South of A. C is 70 m to the West of D. B is 90 m to the South of D. E is 80 m to the East of A. What is E’s direction relative to B?

(1) South-West
(2) West
(3) East
(4) North-East


  1. There are five friends Shankar, Keshav, Nandan, Teja and Pratap. Shankar is shorter than Keshav but taller than Pratap. Nandan is tallest among them. Teja is shorter than Keshav but taller than Shankar. In a row of 40 persons arranged from shortest to tallest, Teja is 30th from the tallest. What is Keshav’s position from the shortest?

(1) 12th
(2) 13th
(3) 10th
(4) 11th


  1. Identify the number that should replace the question mark (?) in the series.

1441, 1098, 882, __?, 693, 666

(1) 791
(2) 774
(3) 768
(4) 757

  1. A question is presented, followed by two statements labeled (I) and (II). Determine which statement(s) provide sufficient data to answer the question.
    What is Gayatri’s age?

Statements:

(I) The average of 10 and Gayatri’s age is 4 years less than Gayatri’s own age.

(II) Total age of Vinmayi and Gayatri is 54 and Vinmayi is Gayatri’s mother.

(1) Both statements (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question.
(2) Even when combined, statements (I) and (II) do not provide sufficient information to answer the question.

(3) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(4) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement (I) alone is not sufficient.


  1. At 8:45 a.m., the minute hand pointed Northeast. A man began his journey at 4:30 a.m., traveling in the direction the hour hand indicated at that time. In which direction is he started?
    (1) West
    (2) South
    (3) North
    (4) East

  1. Analyze the given sequence of letters and answer the question.

(Left) QTRZMOPBGAWNSCYDEUVIKHXJFL (Right)

If the order of last eighteen letters in the given sequence are reversed, which of the following will be the sixth letter to the left of thirteen letter from the right end?
(1) P
(2) G
(3) Q
(4) B


  1. There is an error in one term of the provided number series. Find the wrong term.48, 62, 78, 96, 118, 138

(1) 96
(2) 138
(3) 78
(4) 118


  1. S, U, P, R, V, Q and T are colleagues. Each of them have different designations – Field Supervisor, Caretaker, Manager, Senior Assistant, Storekeeper, Accountant and Cashier (not necessarily in the same order). There are three ladies. U is senior to V and U is junior to P only. The one who is Caretaker is the senior most. S is manager and he is junior to Q, who is Senior Assistant. T is Storekeeper, is senior to V and junior to S. R’s female friend is the Junior most. No lady is either Cashier or Caretaker. U is a female Field Supervisor. The junior most in the group is not a Cashier. What is the designation of R?
    (1) Cashier
    (2) Manager
    (3) Accountant
    (4) Caretaker

  1. In the following series, certain letters are omitted. The missing letters are provided as one of the alternatives, listed in the correct order. Choose the correct option.
    a_bc_a_bcda_ccd_bcd_
    (1) acbdb
    (2) abddbd
    (3) adbcad
    (4) adbbad

  1. Five family members are sitting adjacent to each other in a row of 36 persons facing East. Punit is left of Qadir but right of Robert. Singh is Right of Qadir but left of Tsimo. If Tsimo is thirteenth from the North, then what is the position of Punit from South end of the row?

(1) 27th
(2) 28th
(3) 19th
(4) 20th


  1. At a dinner party, a group of guests were served both fish and meat dishes. Some took only fish and some only meat. There were some vegetarians who didn’t accept either. The rest accepted both fish and meat.

Which Venn diagram most accurately represents this scenario?

Recruitment KVS NVS 2026 Tier 1 PGT

  1. Two statements are given below and these are labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason.

Assertion (A):           Baking soda neutralizes stomach acidity.

Reason (B):               Baking soda is alkaline.

Select the correct answer from the following options:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) correctly explains (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).


part-iI: numeral ability

  1. The value of \frac{(1.5)^2 + 22.09 + (3.8)^2 - (1.5)(4.7) - 3.8(4.7 + 1.5)}{(1.5)^3 + (4.7)^3 + 3.8 \times 14.44 - 4.5 \times 4.7 \times 3.8} is:

(1) 0.3
(2) 10
(3) 0.1
(4) 1


  1. A person bought a fan at a discount of 20% on its printed price. He increases the printed price by 40% and then sells the item at a 15% discount off this higher marked price. What is his gain percent?

(1) 45%
(2) 48.75%
(3) 89%
(4) 42.25%


  1. If the 5-digit number 974xy is divisible by 3, 7 and 11, what is the value of (x2+y2+xY)?

(1) 82
(2) 84
(3) 74
(4) 80


  1. Study the following table and answer the question:
    Number of cars sold by a company during January to June, 2024
MonthNumber of cars soldRatio of diesel to petrol engine cars
January3305:6
February48013:11
March5108:9
April42011:10
May6303:4
June5404:5

80% of the total number of cars (petrol engine) sold by the company during January, March and May is what percent more than the total number of cars (diesel engine) sold during February and June?
(1) 29.6%
(2) 30%
(3) 25.5%
(4) 28%


  1. Selling Article A for ₹2,592 results in a 19% loss. When article B is sold for ₹ 5,856, there is a profit of 22%. If both A and B are sold for a total of ₹ 8,360, then what will be the percent loss/gain?

(1) Loss, 5%
(2) Gain, 6%
(3) Loss, 2.5%
(4) Gain, 4.5%


  1. Train P running at the speed of 72 km/h, crosses train Q whose length is two-third of the length of train P, in 18 seconds. Train Q is running at 63 km/h in the direction opposite to that of train P. Train Q passes a platform in 32 seconds. What is the length (in m) of the platform?

(1) 290
(2) 300
(3) 270
(4) 280


  1. A rhombus has one diagonal of 6√3 cm, while the length of its other diagonal equals the length of its side. What is the area (in cm²) of the rhombus?

(1) 36√3
(2) 24√3
(3) 18√3
(4) 12√3


  1. Let x be the smallest number that leaves a remainder of 3 when divided by 4, 6, 9, 18, and 24, and is also divisible by 11. Calculate the sum of the digits of x.

(1) 12
(2) 11
(3) 13
(4) 14


  1. If x = \frac{(32)^{-\frac{1}{5}} \times (243)^{\frac{4}{5}}}{(1296)^{\frac{3}{4}}} and y = \frac{\left(\frac{3}{2^3}\right)^{-1} \times \left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^{-3} + \left(\frac{-1}{3}\right)^{-1}}{11 - (0.1)^{-1}}, then, \frac{x}{y} is equal to:

(1) 2-5
(2) 3 x 2-4
(3) 3 x 23
(4) 23


  1. In the following series:
    2, 6, 30, 60, 130, x,y, …………
    What is the value of (x + Y)?

(1) 560
(2) 580
(3) 410
(4) 470


  1. The compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 15% p.a. is ₹ 4,634, when the interest is compounded 8-monthly. What will be the simple interest on the same sum for same period and same rate?

(1) ₹ 4,400
(2) ₹ 4,440
(3) ₹ 4,200
(4) ₹ 4,260


  1. A class has a boy-to-girl ratio of 4:5. The average height of boys is 156 cm and the average height of girls is 1.4 cm less than the average height of all the boys and girls in the class. What is the average height (in cm) of girls?

(1) 154.6
(2) 154.25
(3) 152.6
(4) 152.85


  1. If \frac{9 + 72\div 3 - 2 \times (3 - 2) - 3}{5 + 2 \text{ of } 3 \div 3 \text{ of } 2 \times 3}= \frac{a}{B} where a and b are coprime, then what is the value of (a – b) is:

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 1
(4) 2


  1. Given that a : (b + c) = 3 : 5, b : (a + c) = 5 : 7 and a + b + c = k. If c = 540, then what is the value of k?

(1) 2592
(2) 2616
(3) 2520
(4) 2544


  1. Anita’s savings are 16% of her expenditure. If her expenditure increases by 43.2% and savings increase by 30%, then by approximately what percent does her income increase?

(1) 52.6
(2) 63.2
(3) 40.8
(4) 41.4


  1. If \frac{\sqrt{35 + 5\sqrt{13}} - \sqrt{35 - 5\sqrt{13}}}{3 - \sqrt{10}} = a + b√10, then what is the value of (a – B)?

(1) 9
(2) -10
(3) 5

(4) -7


  1. 60% employees of a company are females and 25% of these females earn more than ₹ 45,000 per month. If 45% of all the employees earn more than ₹ 45,000 per month, then the percentage of males earning ₹ 45,000 or less per month is:

(1) 24%
(2) 30%
(3) 20%

(4) 25%


  1. Solutions A and B have spirit-to-water ratios of 3:5 and 2:3, respectively. If they are mixed in a 3:2 ratio, what is the percentage of spirit in the final mixture?

(1) 38.5%
(2) 40.5%
(3) 35%
(4) 36%


  1. A can finish a job in 36 days. B’s efficiency is 33\tfrac{1}{3}\% lower than A’s. They begin together, but A leaves 4 days before the work is finished. Calculate the total duration of the project.

(1) 28
(2) 30
(3) 20
(4) 24


  1. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 8 hours and 20 hours, respectively. Pipe C is an outlet pipe. All the three pipes are opened for 3 hours and 40% the tank got filled. In how many hours will pipes A and C together fill the remaining part of the tank?

(1) 7\tfrac{1}{5}
(2) 8
(3) 6\tfrac{1}{2}
(4) 7


part-iII: basic computer literacy

  1. Which of these actions is not classified as a cybercrime?

(1) Picking up 100 new and empty per drives from a stall and running away without making payment.
(2) Sending an email containing threatening text.
(3) Publishing inflammatory content on social media to harm someone’s reputation.

(4) Getting the access of someone’s online bank account and transfer funds without owner’s consent.


  1. What is the smallest fundamental unit of data in computing?

(1) Nibble
(2) Word
(3) Byte
(4) Bit


  1. It is an easy-to-use online tool available to create digital presentations containing Text, Image, illustrations and Video:

(1) Notepad
(2) VLC Media Player
(3) Google Slides
(4) MS Paint


  1. In the TCP/IP networking model, what does the ‘T’ in TCP stand for?

(1) Transport
(2) Transformer
(3) Transmission
(4) Transfer


  1. Which one is the default file extension of the latest versions of MS Excel spreadsheets?

(1) .sheets
(2) .ods
(3) .xlsx
(4) .excel


  1. ______ is a processed, organized, and structured data that has been given context and meaning.
    (1) Program
    (2) Instruction
    (3) Raw Data
    (4) Information

  1. Out of the following, ______ software helps to protect computer systems from malware.

(1) Web Browser
(2) Cookies
(3) Antivirus
(4) File Explorer


  1. Which of the following will be considered as a good password for an online account keeping Cyber Safety in mind?

(1) 2#K9@Ytx*
(2) loveupapa
(3) 1234ABCD
(4) myboss


  1. ______ is a most widely used software, which helps to view and explore text, picture and video content on the World Wide Web.

(1) Search Engine
(2) Browser
(3) Web Server
(4) Operating System


  1. Which among the following is an application software?

(1) Operating System
(2) WinRAR
(3) LibreOffice
(4) Antivirus


  1. ______ is an input device that converts a physical paper document into a digital image.

(1) Joystick
(2) Barcode reader
(3) Scanner
(4) Light Pen


  1. This service enables users to access, edit, store, and collaborate on documents online.

(1) Memory Stick
(2) Hard Disk
(3) Google Drive
(4) Pen Drive


  1. Which among the following is an output device?

(1) Barcode Reader
(2) Plotter
(3) Scanner
(4) Joystick


  1. What does the acronym URL stand for?

(1) Uniform Resource Location
(2) Universal Resource Location
(3) Universal Resource Locator
(4) Uniform Resource Locator


  1. From the following, identify the IP address that is invalid under IPv4 rules.

(1) 91.4.5.256
(2) 10.0.0.1
(3) 192.0.23.204
(4) 201.34.50.1


  1. A system in which participants in different locations are able to communicate with each other using audio and video:

(1) Video Conference
(2) Blog
(3) Podcast
(4) Email


  1. Select the example of system software from the list.

(1) Device Driver
(2) LibreOffice
(3) MS Paint
(4) Notepad


  1. The main/primary memory of a computer is also called:

(1) Hard Disk
(2) Cache
(3) Pen Drive
(4) RAM


  1. The shortcut key to ‘Find and Replace’ option in Windows is:

(1) Ctrl + X
(2) Ctrl + H
(3) Ctrl + C
(4) Ctrl + V


  1. Which of the following operating systems is open-source?

(1) MacOS
(2) Ubuntu
(3) Microsoft Windows
(4) iOS


part-iV: general knowledge

  1. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is available to both citizens and non-citizens India?
    (a) Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
    (b) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
    (c) Right to Form Associations or Unions
    Choose the correct answer:

(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a)
(4) Only (b)


  1. In the Ecological pyramid of biomass, which of the following organisms has the lowest biomass?

(1) Secondary consumer
(2) Tertiary consumer
(3) Primary consumer
(4) Producer


  1. Which of the following quantities are scalar?

(1) Velocity
(2) Temperature
(3) Force
(4) Displacement


  1. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the ULLAS scheme also known as the New India Literacy Programme (NILP)?

(1) Encourages learners to access educational content in regional languages via the DIKSHA portal and the ULLAS Mobile App/Portal.
(2) Allows Flexibility for States/UTs to undertake innovative activities under the scheme.
(3) Foundational Literacy and Numeracy will be imparted through Critical Life Skills to all non-literates in the age group of 15 years and above.
(4) The implementation of ULLAS is only in online mode.


  1. Which of the following river is known as the “Sorrow of Bihar“?

(1) Brahmaputra
(2) Kosi
(3) Kaligandak
(4) Ganga


  1. Which of the following pairs won the Sahitya Akademi Puraskar, 2025 in Bengali language.
 AuthorBook
1Sudeshna MoitraEkrokha Chiruni Tollashi
2Prajjal PaulBunte Bunte
3Deep GhoshKholamkuchi
4Tanmay MondalBore

  1. Match the United Nations International Year Themes/ topics in the Column (A) with the year mentioned in column (B):
 A B
aInternational Year of Volunteers for Sustainable Developmenti2023
bInternational Year of Sustainable and Resilient TourismiI2025
cInternational Year of Dialogue as a Guarantee of PeaceiII2026
dInternational Year of Peace and TrustiV2027

Select the correct answer using the provided code.

(1) (a)-(iV), (b)-(iII), (c)-(iI), (d)-(i)

(2) (a)-(iI), (b)-(iV), (c)-(iII), (d)-(i)

(3) (a)-(iI), (b)-(i), (c)-(iII), (d)-(iV)

(4) (a)-(iII), (b)-(iV), (c)-(i), (d)-(iI)


  1. Match the recipients of the Nobel Peace Prize (Column A) with their Year of Award (Column B):
 A B
 Nobel Prize Recipients: Year of Award
aNarges Mohammadii2021
bMaria Ressa and Dmitry MuratoviI2024
cAles Bialiatski, Memorial and Centre for Civil LibertiesiII2022
dNihon HidankyoiV2023

(1) (a)-(iII), (b)-(i), (c)-(iV), (d)-(iI)

(2) (a)-(iII), (b)-(iV), (c)-(iI), (d)-(i)

(3) (a)-(iV), (b)-(i), (c)-(iII), (d)-(iI)

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iI), (c)-(iV), (d)-(iII)


  1. Between which forces was the Battle of Alaboi fought?

(1) Dimasa Kingdom and Burmese Army
(2) Ahom Kingdom and Mughals
(3) Koch Kingdom and Portuguese East India Company
(4) The Jaintia and Khasi Kingdom against the British East India Company.


  1. Consider the following statements regarding 2025 Wimbledon Lawn Tennis Championship from men’s singles category:
    (a) The men’s singles title was won by a player from Italy.
    (b) Jannik Sinner lost in the men’s singles final.
    (c) Carlos Alcaraz won the singles title.
    (d) Roger Federer has won the men’s singles trophy highest number of times.
    Select the correct answer using the provided code.

(1) Only (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Only (a), (b) and (d)
(3) Only (b) and (c)
(4) Only (a) and (d)


  1. Consider the following statements about ‘Mission Mausam’:
    (a) It is a transnational project on maritime routes and cultural landscapes across the Indian Ocean rim.
    (b) It is a project of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
    Choose the correct answer:

(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(2) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct
(3) (a) is correct
(4) (b) is correct


  1. According to the Global Energy Review 2025, which of the following are the top two coal consuming countries in the world?

(1) China and Brazil
(2) India and Brazil
(3) China and USA
(4) China and India


  1. After the Revolt of 1857, Bahadur Shah Zafar was sentenced to life imprisonment and sent to which prison?

(1) Chunar Fort Prison
(2) Ahmednagar Fort Prison
(3) Cellular Jail, Port Blair
(4) Rangoon Jail


  1. Consider the following statements about Integrated GST (IGST) in India:

(a) Integrated GST (IGST) is applied to the interstate supply of goods and services.

(b) Integrated GST (IGST) is collected only by State Government.

Choose the correct answer:

(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct

(2) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct

(3) (a) is correct

(4) (b) is correct


  1. Consider the following statements:
    (a) Indonesia is included in the list of G20 countries.
    (b) Like India, Indonesia also has a parliamentary system where the President is elected indirectly.

Choose the correct answer:
(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(2) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct
(3) (a) is correct
(4) (b) is correct


  1. The UNDP measures Gender Social Norm Index (GSNI), as part of Human Development. Which of the following is not among the four key dimensions for GSNI?

(1) Reproductive
(2) Economic
(3) Political
(4) Educational


  1. Which of the following is a ‘solid solution’?

(1) Glucose dissolved in water
(2) Copper dissolved in gold
(3) Camphor in nitrogen gas
(4) Chloroform mixed with nitrogen gas


  1. In the National Professional Standards for Teachers (NPST) by the NCTE, which domain falls under “Professional Growth and Development”?

(1) Professional Relationship
(2) Technology use and integration in education
(3) Content Development for students learning
(4) Learning needs


  1. The setting up of the Inter-State Council in 1990 was a result of the recommendations of which of the following Commission?

(1) Nanavati Commission
(2) Shah Commission
(3) Kothari Commission
(4) Sarkaria Commission


  1. Consider the following statements regarding the national football championship for men:
    (a) West Bengal is the winner of the 2024-25 national football championship for men.
    (b) The runner-up team (second placed) receives Sampangi Cup.
    (c) The third placed team receives Kamla Gupta Trophy.
    (d) West Bengal is the most successful team in the history of the national football championship for men, with 33 title wins.

Select the correct answer using the provided code.

(1) Only (c) and (d) are correct
(2) Only (a) and (d) are correct
(3) Only (a) and (b) are correct
(4) Only (b) and (c) are correct


part-v: language competency test – english

  1. In the following sentence, identify the part which contains an error.
    I think / I met you / at the grocer’s shop, / isn’t it?
          (A)         (B)                    (C)               (D)

(1) C
(2) D
(3) A
(4) B


  1. Arrange the given parts in the correct sequence to form a coherent sentence.

(A) he sped away
(B) without leaving a trace
(C) when I asked the stranger
(D) who he was
(1) (C), (D), (A), (B)
(2) (D), (C), (A), (B)
(3) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(4) (C), (D), (B), (A)


  1. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition.
    The family, once moderately prosperous, is now engulfed______ poverty.

(1) in
(2) of
(3) with
(4) from


  1. Fill in the blank with an appropriate article.
    The other day, I was occupied and ended up having______ late lunch at home.

(1) the
(2) no article
(3) a
(4) an


  1. Select the word closest in meaning to the provided word.

Destitution


(1) vagrancy
(2) poverty
(3) prosperity
(4) hunger


  1. Select the option that correctly converts the given sentence from active to passive voice.

Who taught you English at the college level?
(1) Who taught you English at the college level?

(2) Who was your English instructor at the college level?

(3) Who taught you English during your college years?

(4) Who was responsible for teaching you English in college?


  1. Select the correct meaning of the underlined idiom from the provided options.

There is no love lost between the 2 brothers.
(1) have a love-hate relationship with each other
(2) are sworn enemies
(3) dislike each other
(4) respect each other


  1. Identify the type of clause for the underlined portion of the sentence.

The person who was wearing a long, loose coat is an old friend from college, rediscovered after many years.
(1) Adverb clause
(2) Principal clause
(3) Noun clause
(4) Adjective clause


  1. Select the word that is an antonym of the given word.

Gaudy
(1) ugly
(2) dirty
(3) bright
(4) drab


  1. For the underlined word in the sentence, select the option that correctly identifies its part of speech.
    An ascetic’s material needs are minimal and infrequent.

(1) Noun
(2) Conjunction
(3) Verb
(4) Pronoun


part-vI: language competency test – hindi

  1. ‘कपीश’ का संधि-विच्छेद है:

(1) कपि + इश
(2) कपि + ईश
(3) कपी + ईश
(4) कपी + इश


  1. ‘क्षण में नष्ट होने वाला’ के लिए एक शब्द है:

(1) क्षणमात्र
(2) क्षणभर
(3) क्षणिक
(4) क्षणभंगुर


  1. व्याकरणिक दृष्टि से सही वाक्य का चयन करिए:

(1) नए नित शोध होते है क्षेत्र में ज्ञान के।
(2) है एक समस्या यह भी पाठ्यक्रम की।
(3) पाठ्य-सामग्रियों का होना चाहिए पुनरीक्षण।
(4) ज्ञान की रचना में विद्यार्थियों की सक्रिय भागीदारी हो।


  1. ‘यथोचित’ का सामासिक विग्रह है:

(1) यथा के अनुसार उचित
(2) यथा और उचित
(3) जो अनुचित हो
(4) जो उचित हो


  1. ‘सभी ______ ने निर्बंध लिखें।”

उपर्युक्त वाक्य में रिक्त स्थान को पूर्ति के लिए सही शब्द का चयन करिए:
(1) बालिका
(2) बालिकाएँ
(3) बालिकाओं
(4) बालक


  1. ‘स्वयं को संकट में डालना’ के भाव को व्यक्त करने वाला मुहावरा है:

(1) ज्ञान पर खेलना।
(2) खून खील उठना।
(3) छप्पर फाड़ कर देना।
(4) काम तमाम कर देना।


  1. निम्नलिखित वाक्य के लिए सही विराम चिह्नों का चयन कीजिए।
    “हमने अभी तक पाठ्यचर्या, पाठ्यक्रम और पाठ्यसामग्री पर चर्चा की है”

(1) ,।
(2) II
(3) ; ?
(4) , !


  1. वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है:

(1) स्वास्थ्य
(2) सवास्थ्य
(3) स्वस्थ्य
(4) स्वास्थ्य


  1. ‘जल’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द है:

(1) सरोवर
(2) सरोद
(3) सरोज
(4) सलिल


  1. “मेरे विद्यालय का ______ अत्यंत सुंदर है।”

उपर्युक्त वाक्य में रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति के लिए सही शब्द का चयन करिए।
(1) भावन
(2) भ्रमण
(3) भवन
(4) भुवन


Answer Key

PART I – GENERAL REASONINGPART II – NUMERICAL ABILITY
Q.No.AnswerQ.No.AnswerQ.No.AnswerQ.No.Answer
12112213313
22123222321
32132232333
43142241341
51154254354
64163261364
71174271372
82181281381
94192291392
101203301401
PART III – Basic Computer LiteracyPART IV – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Q.No.AnswerQ.No.AnswerQ.No.AnswerQ.No.Answer
411513614713
424523622724
433532632734
443544644743
453551652753
464561661761
473571673772
481584683782
492592692794
503602704802
PART V – Language Competency Test – EnglishPart-VI: Language Competency Test – Hindi
Q.No.AnswerQ.No.AnswerQ.No.AnswerQ.No.Answer
812861912961
821873924971
831884934981
843894941994
8529019521003

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